FAA Test questions part1

August 6, 2017

Which basic flight maneuver increases the load factor on an airplane as compared to straight-and-level flight?
A.		Climbs.
B.		Turns.
C.		Stalls.
		A change in speed during straight flight will not produce any appreciable change in load, but when a change is made in the airplane’s flight path, an additional load is imposed upon the airplane structure. This is particularly true if a change in direction is made at high speeds with rapid, forceful control movements. Answer (A) is incorrect because the load increases only as the angle of attack is changed, momentarily. Once the climb attitude has been set, the wings only carry the load produced by the weight of the aircraft. Answer (C) is incorrect because in a stall, the wings are not producing lift.

2.		If an emergency situation requires a downwind landing, pilots should expect a faster
A.		airspeed at touchdown, a longer ground roll, and better control throughout the landing roll.
B.		groundspeed at touchdown, a longer ground roll, and the likelihood of overshooting the desired touchdown point.
C.		groundspeed at touchdown, a shorter ground roll, and the likelihood of undershooting the desired touchdown point.
		A downwind landing, using the same airspeed as is used on a normal upwind landing, will result in a higher approach ground speed, with the likelihood of overshooting the desired touchdown point. The ground speed at touchdown will be higher than normal, and the ground roll will be longer. Answer (A) is incorrect because the airspeed will be the same, and the control throughout the landing roll will be less due to the higher ground speed. Answer (C) is incorrect because the ground roll will be longer, and there will be a greater likelihood of overshooting the touchdown point.

3.		What is the purpose of the rudder on an airplane?
A.		To control yaw.
B.		To control overbanking tendency.
C.		To control roll.
		The purpose of the rudder is to control yaw. Answer (B) is incorrect because the ailerons control overbanking. Answer (C) is incorrect because roll is controlled by the ailerons.

4.		If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified for the engine, it will most likely cause
A.		a mixture of fuel and air that is not uniform in all cylinders.
B.		lower cylinder head temperatures.
C.		detonation.
		Using fuel of a lower rating is harmful under any circumstances because it may cause loss of power, excessive heat, burned spark plugs, burned and sticky valves, high oil consumption, and detonation. Answer (A) is incorrect because the carburetor will meter the lower-grade fuel the same as the proper fuel. Answer (B) is incorrect because lower-grade fuel raises cylinder head temperatures.

5.		What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating during a climb?
A.		Reduce rate of climb and increase airspeed.
B.		Reduce climb speed and increase RPM.
C.		Increase climb speed and increase RPM.
		To avoid excessive cylinder head temperatures, a pilot can open the cowl flaps, increase airspeed, enrich the mixture, or reduce power. Any of these procedures will aid in reducing the engine temperature. Establishing a shallower climb (increasing airspeed) increases the airflow through the cooling system, reducing high engine temperatures. Answer (B) is incorrect because reducing airspeed hinders cooling, and increasing RPM will further increase engine temperature. Answer (C) is incorrect because increasing RPM will increase engine temperature.

6.		During the preflight inspection who is responsible for determining the aircraft is safe for flight?
A.		The pilot in command.
B.		The owner or operator.
C.		The certificated mechanic who performed the annual inspection.
		The pilot-in-command of an aircraft is responsible for determining whether that aircraft is in condition for safe flight.

7.		Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to which altitude or altimeter setting?
A.		The current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport elevation.
B.		The corrected density altitude of the departure airport.
C.		The corrected pressure altitude for the departure airport.
		The altimeter should be set to the elevation of the departure airport for airplanes, and the departure area for other aircraft. Answer (B) is incorrect because density altitude is pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature variations and only concerns the performance of the aircraft. Answer (C) is incorrect because pressure altitude is the altitude indicated on the altimeter when the altimeter is set to 29.92.

8.		After takeoff, which airspeed would the pilot use to gain the most altitude in a given period of time?
A.		V(Y).
B.		V(X).
C.		V(A).
		V(Y) (best rate) is the calibrated airspeed at which the airplane will obtain the maximum increase in altitude per unit of time (feet per minute) after takeoff. Answer (B) is incorrect because V(X) is the best angle of climb. Answer (C) is incorrect because V(A) is the design maneuvering speed.

9.		If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate
A.		the actual altitude above sea level.
B.		higher than the actual altitude above sea level.
C.		lower than the actual altitude above sea level.
		If a flight is made from a high-pressure area to a low-pressure area without adjusting the altimeter, the actual altitude of the airplane will be lower than the indicated altitude, and when flying from a low-pressure area to high-pressure area, the actual altitude of the airplane will be higher than the indicated altitude. Answer (A) is incorrect because a correct altimeter setting must be used and/or standard atmospheric conditions must exist. Answer (B) is incorrect because the altimeter will indicate a lower altitude than actual.

10.		An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplane’s position, which aircraft has the right-of-way?
A.		The airship.
B.		The airplane.
C.		Each pilot should alter course to the right.
		An airship has the right-of-way over an airplane or rotorcraft.

11.		FAA advisory circulars (some free, others at cost) are available to all pilots and are obtained by
A.		distribution from the nearest FAA district office.
B.		ordering those desired from the Government Printing Office.
C.		subscribing to the Federal Register.
		Advisory circulars which are offered for sale or free may be ordered from the Superintendent of Documents, U.S. Government Printing Office.

12.		How should a VFR flight plan be closed at the completion of the flight at a controlled airport?
A.		The tower will automatically close the flight plan when the aircraft turns off the runway.
B.		The pilot must close the flight plan with the FAA upon landing.
C.		The tower will relay the instructions to the nearest FSS when the aircraft contacts the tower for landing.
		The pilot-in-command, upon canceling or completing the flight under the flight plan, shall notify an FAA Flight Service Station or ATC facility.

13.		When must a pilot who deviates from a regulation during an emergency send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator?
A.		Within 7 days.
B.		Within 10 days.
C.		Upon request.
		Each pilot-in-command who deviates from a rule in an emergency shall, upon request, send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator.

14.		No person may operate an airplane within Class D airspace at night under special VFR unless the
A.		flight can be conducted 500 feet below the clouds.
B.		airplane is equipped for instrument flight.
C.		flight visibility is at least 3 miles.
		No person may operate an aircraft (other than a helicopter) in a Class D airspace under special weather minimums between sunset and sunrise unless the airplane and pilot are certified for instrument flight.

15.		When would a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency which caused the pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance?
A.		Within 48 hours if requested by ATC.
B.		Immediately.
C.		Within 7 days.
		Each pilot-in-command who deviated from an ATC clearance during an emergency must submit a detailed report within 48 hours if requested by ATC.

16.		A seaplane and a motorboat are on crossing courses. If the motorboat is to the left of the seaplane, which has the right-of-way?
A.		The motorboat.
B.		The seaplane.
C.		Both should alter course to the right.
		For water operation, when aircraft, or an aircraft and a vessel, are on crossing courses, the aircraft or vessel to the other’s right has the right-of-way.

17.		What ATC facility should the pilot contact to receive a special VFR departure clearance in Class D airspace?
A.		Automated Flight Service Station.
B.		Air Traffic Control Tower.
C.		Air Route Traffic Control Center.
		When a control tower is in operation, requests for special VFR clearances should be to the tower.

18.		Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft may not be operated closer than what distance from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure?
A.		500 feet.
B.		700 feet.
C.		1,000 feet.
		Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, no person may operate an aircraft closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.

19.		A certificated private pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider unless there is entered in the pilot’s logbook a minimum of
A.		100 hours of pilot flight time in any aircraft, that the pilot is using to tow a glider.
B.		100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider.
C.		200 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider.
		With a Private pilot certificate, no person may act as PIC of an aircraft towing a glider unless he/she has had, and entered in his/her logbook, at least: 1. 100 hours of PIC time in the aircraft category, class, and type (if required), or 2. 200 hours of PIC time in powered or other aircraft. Answer (A) is incorrect because the 100 hours must be as PIC and in the proper category, class and type, if required. Answer (C) is incorrect because the 200 hours of flight time can be in a combination of powered and other-than-powered.

20.		The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that of the
A.		pilot in command.
B.		owner or operator.
C.		mechanic who performs the work.
		The owner or operator of an aircraft is primarily responsible for maintaining the aircraft in an airworthy condition. The pilot-in-command of a civil aircraft is responsible for determining whether that aircraft is in condition for safe flight.

21.		Which incident would necessitate an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?
A.		An in-flight generator/alternator failure.
B.		An in-flight fire.
C.		An in-flight loss of VOR receiver capability.
		Immediate notification of the NTSB is necessary if an in-flight fire occurs.

22.		(Refer to Figure Commercial 58.) You have requested taxi instructions for takeoff using Runway 16. The controller issues the following taxi instructions: “N123, Taxi to runway 16.” Where are you required to stop in order to be in compliance with the controller’s instructions
A.		5 (Five).
B.		6 (Six).
C.		9 (Nine).
		When ATC clears an aircraft to “taxi to” an assigned takeoff runway, the absence of holding instructions does not authorize the aircraft to “cross” all runways which the taxi route intersects except the assigned takeoff runway. A clearance must be obtained prior to crossing any runway. It does not include authorization to “taxi onto” or “cross” the assigned takeoff runway at any point. You should taxi and hold short of runway 16, which is position 5. Answer (B) is incorrect because “taxi to” does not authorize the aircraft to “taxi onto” the assigned takeoff runway. Answer (C) is incorrect because the airplane should taxi the most direct route to the assigned runway unless instructed otherwise; position 9 would not be encountered for the airplane at the west ramp to taxi to runway 16.

23.		(Refer to Figure 50.) The segmented circle indicates that the airport traffic is
A.		left-hand for Runway 36 and right-hand for Runway 18.
B.		left-hand for Runway 18 and right-hand for Runway 36.
C.		right-hand for Runway 9 and left-hand for Runway 27.
		The traffic pattern indicators on a segmented circle are used to indicate the direction of turns. The traffic pattern indicators, shown as extensions from the segmented circle, represent the base and final approach legs.

24.		During a night flight, you observe a steady white light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?
A.		The other aircraft is flying away from you.
B.		The other aircraft is crossing to the left.
C.		The other aircraft is crossing to the right.
		Airplanes have a red light on the left wing tip, a green light on the right wing tip and a white light on the tail. The flashing red light is the rotating beacon which can be seen from all directions around the aircraft. When the only steady light seen is white, then the airplane is headed away from the observing pilot.

25.		(Refer to Figure 49.) If the wind is as shown by the landing direction indicator, the pilot should land on
A.		Runway 18 and expect a crosswind from the right.
B.		Runway 22 directly into the wind.
C.		Runway 36 and expect a crosswind from the right.
		The small end of the tetrahedron points into the wind indicating the direction of landing. Landing to the south on RWY 18, the pilot could expect a right crosswind.

26.		(Refer to Figure 49.) Select the proper traffic pattern and runway for landing.
A.		Left-hand traffic and Runway 18.
B.		Right-hand traffic and Runway 18.
C.		Left-hand traffic and Runway 22.
		The small end of the tetrahedron points into the wind, indicating the direction of landing. The wind is coming from the southwest. However, the runway most nearly aligned into the wind is closed (X), leaving RWY 18 as the most suitable runway. The traffic pattern indicators on a segmented circle are used to indicate the direction of turns. The traffic pattern indicators, shown as extensions from the segmented circle, represent the base and final approach legs. The traffic pattern indicator shows right traffic for RWY 18.

27.		(Refer to Figure 9, area B.) How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tailwheel airplane into a right quartering headwind?
A.		Right aileron up, elevator up.
B.		Right aileron down, elevator neutral.
C.		Right aileron up, elevator down.
		When taxiing a tailwheel airplane with a quartering headwind, the aileron on the upwind side should be up, and the elevator held in the up position to hold the tail down.

28.		During a cross-country flight you picked up rime icing which you estimate is 1/2″ thick on the leading edge of the wings. You are now below the clouds at 2000 feet AGL and are approaching your destination airport under VFR. Visibility under the clouds is more than 10 miles, winds at the destination airport are 8 knots right down the runway, and the surface temperature is 3 degrees Celsius. You decide to
A.		use a faster than normal approach and landing speed.
B.		approach and land at your normal speed since the ice is not thick enough to have any noticeable effect.
C.		fly your approach slower than normal to lessen the ‘wind chill’ effect and break up the ice
		Ice will accumulate unevenly on the airplane. It will add weight and drag, and decrease thrust and lift. With ice accumulations, landing approaches should be made with a minimum wing flap setting and with an added margin of airspeed. Sudden and large configuration and airspeed changes should be avoided. Answer (B) is incorrect because ice having a thickness similar to sandpaper on the leading edge and upper surface of a wing can reduce wing lift by as much as 30% and increase drag by 40%. Answer (C) is incorrect because ice will increase drag, requiring additional lift (airspeed); ‘wind chill’ effect cannot be relied upon to melt/remove the ice that has already accumulated; flying slower than normal increases the possibility of a stall due to the decreased lift.

29.		Steady precipitation preceding a front is an indication of
A.		stratiform clouds with moderate turbulence.
B.		cumuliform clouds with little or no turbulence.
C.		stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence.
		Precipitation from stratiform clouds is usually steady and there is little or no turbulence.

30.		What situation is most conducive to the formation of radiation fog?
A.		Warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights.
B.		Moist, tropical air moving over cold, offshore water.
C.		The movement of cold air over much warmer water.
		Conditions favorable for radiation fog are clear sky, little or no wind, and small temperature/dew point spread (high relative humidity). Radiation fog is restricted to land because water surfaces cool little from nighttime radiation. Answer (B) is incorrect because radiation fog will not form over water since water surfaces cool little from nighttime radiation. Answer (C) is incorrect because radiation fog will not form over water since water surfaces cool little from nighttime radiation.

31.		One of the most easily recognized discontinuities across a front is
A.		a change in temperature.
B.		an increase in cloud coverage.
C.		an increase in relative humidity.
		Temperature is one of the most easily recognized discontinuities across a front. Answer (B) is incorrect because cloud coverage is not always present across a front. Answer (C) is incorrect because relative humidity is not an easily recognized discontinuity across a front.

32.		During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts?
A.		Cumulus.
B.		Dissipating.
C.		Mature.
		Downdrafts characterize the dissipating stage of the thunderstorm cell and the storm dies rapidly. Answer (A) is incorrect because updrafts occur during the cumulus stage. Answer (C) is incorrect because both updrafts and downdrafts occur during the mature stage.

33.		How does frost affect the lifting surfaces of an airplane on takeoff?
A.		Frost may prevent the airplane from becoming airborne at normal takeoff speed.
B.		Frost will change the camber of the wing, increasing lift during takeoff.
C.		Frost may cause the airplane to become airborne with a lower angle of attack at a lower indicated airspeed.
		The roughness of the surface of frost spoils the smooth flow of air, thus causing a slowing of the airflow. This slowing of the air causes early air flow separation over the affected airfoil, resulting in a loss of lift. Even a small amount of frost on airfoils may prevent an aircraft from becoming airborne at normal takeoff speed. Answer (B) is incorrect because frost does not change the basic aerodynamic shape of the airfoil. Answer (C) is incorrect because frost may prevent the aircraft from becoming airborne at normal takeoff speed and will not lower the angle of attack.

34.		(Refer to Figure 12). What are the wind conditions at Wink, Texas (KINK)?
A.		Calm.
B.		110° at 12 knots, gusts 18 knots.
C.		111° at 2 knots, gusts 18 knots.
		The wind is reported as a five-digit group (six digits if speed is over 99 knots). The first three digits is the direction the wind is blowing from rounded to the nearest tens of degrees relative to true north, or ‘VRB’ if the direction is variable. The next two digits is the speed in knots, or if over 99 knots, the next three digits. If the wind is gusty, it is reported as a ‘G’ after the speed followed by the highest gust reported. The abbreviation ‘KT’ is appended to denote the use of knots for wind speed. The wind group for KINK is 11012G18KT which means the wind is from 110° at 12 knots, with gusts to 18 knots.

35.		(Refer to Figure 17.) Determine the wind and temperature aloft forecast for MKC at 6,000 feet.
A.		200° true at 6 knots, temperature +3 °C.
B.		050° true at 7 knots, temperature missing.
C.		200° magnetic at 6 knots, temperature +3 °C.
		A six-digit group shows wind directions (in reference to true north) in the first two digits, wind speed (in knots) in the second two digits, and temperature (in Celsius) in the last two digits. In this case, 2006+03 means 200° at 6 knots, and the temperature is 3°C. ^

36.		(Refer to Figure 17.) Determine the wind and temperature aloft forecast for DEN at 9,000 feet.
A.		230° magnetic at 53 knots, temperature 47 °C.
B.		230° true at 53 knots, temperature -47 °C.
C.		230° true at 21 knots, temperature -4 °C.
		A six-digit group shows wind directions (in reference to true north) in the first two digits, wind speed (in knots) in the second two digits, and temperature (in Celsius) in the last two digits. In this case, 2321-04 means 230° at 21 knots, and the temperature is -4°C. ^

37.		SIGMETs are issued as a warning of weather conditions hazardous to which aircraft?
A.		Small aircraft only.
B.		Large aircraft only.
C.		All aircraft.
		A SIGMET advises of weather potentially hazardous to all aircraft.

38.		Which type of weather briefing should a pilot request to supplement mass disseminated data?
A.		An outlook briefing.
B.		A supplemental briefing.
C.		An abbreviated briefing.
		Request an abbreviated briefing when you need information to supplement mass disseminated data, update a previous briefing, or when you need only one or two specific items.

39.		(Refer to Figure 14.) The wind and temperature at 12,000 feet MSL as reported by a pilot are
A.		090° at 21 MPH and -9 °F.
B.		090° at 21 knots and -9 °C.
C.		080° at 21 knots and -7°C.
		Winds are given after the ‘WV’ heading. Wind direction is listed first, followed by wind speed in knots. WV 08021/ means wind from 080° at 21 knots. Air temperature is given in 2 digits, (in degrees Celsius), after the ‘TA’ heading. If below zero, it will be prefixed with an “M.” Therefore, /TA M7/ means that the outside air temperature is -7°C.

40.		(Refer to Figure 38.) Determine the approximate landing ground roll distance. Pressure altitude Sea level Headwind 4 kts Temperature Std
A.		356 feet.
B.		401 feet.
C.		490 feet.
		Use the following steps: 1. Locate the sea level portion of FAA Figure 38. 2. Read the landing ground roll distance (445 feet). 3. Note 1 requires that the distances shown be decreased by 10% for each 4 knots of headwind. 445 x .10 = 44.5 feet 445.0 – 44.5 = 400.5 or 401 feet

41.		(Refer to Figure 35.) Approximately what true airspeed should a pilot expect with full throttle at 10,500 feet with a temperature of 36 degrees F above standard?
A.		190 knots.
B.		159 knots.
C.		165 knots.
		Use the following steps: 1. Locate +36 degrees F (ISA +20 degrees C) on FAA Figure 35. Notice that the stated altitude of 10,500 feet does not appear on the chart so it is necessary to interpolate. 2. Read across the 10,000-foot pressure altitude line and determine the TAS (166 knots). 3. Read across the 12,000-foot pressure altitude line and determine the TAS (163 knots). 4. Interpolate between the values for 10,000 feet and 12,000 feet to determine a TAS for 10,500 feet. a. 166 knots (10,000 feet) – 163 knots (12,000 feet) = 3 knots difference in speed b. Interpolate to find one-quarter of difference for 10,500 feet: 3 x .25 = .75 c. Subtract the difference to the speed for 10,000 feet to find TAS for 10,500 feet: 166 – .75 = 165.25

42.		Which items are included in the empty weight of an aircraft?
A.		Unusable fuel and undrainable oil.
B.		Only the airframe, powerplant, and optional equipment.
C.		Full fuel tanks and engine oil to capacity.
		Empty weight consists of the airframe, engines, and all items of operating equipment that have fixed locations and are permanently installed in the airplane. It includes optional and special equipment, fixed ballast, hydraulic fluid, unusable (residual) fuel, and undrainable (residual) oil. Answer (B) is incorrect because empty weight also includes operating fluids and unusable fuel. Answer (C) is incorrect because empty weight does not include full fuel.

43.		(Refer to Figure 36.) What is the headwind component for a landing on Runway 18 if the tower reports the wind as 220° at 30 knots?
A.		19 knots.
B.		23 knots.
C.		26 knots.
		Use the following steps: 1. Determine the relative wind angle (WA) from the difference between the runway heading (RH) and the wind direction (WD): WA = WD – RH WA = 220° – 180° WA = 40° 2. Locate the arc corresponding to a 30-knot wind on FAA Figure 36. 3. Find the point of intersection of the 40° line with the 30-knot wind speed arc. 4. Draw a line to the left from the intersection to the headwind component scale and read the resulting velocity of 23 knots.

44.		(Refer to figure 61.) If 50 pounds of weight is located at point X and 100 pounds at point Z, how much weight must be located at point Y to balance the plank?
A.		30 pounds.
B.		50 pounds.
C.		300 pounds.
		Find the moments left and right of the fulcrum, and set them equal to one another. Left = right 50(50) + Y(25) = 100(100) 2,500 + 25Y = 10,000 Y = 300 pounds

45.		(Refer to Figure 34.) Calculate the moment of the airplane and determine which category is applicable. WEIGHT (LB) MOM/1000 Empty weight 1,350 51.5 Pilot and front passenger 310 — Rear passengers 96 — Fuel, 38 gal — — Oil, 8 qt — -0.2
A.		79.2, utility category.
B.		80.8, utility category.
C.		81.2, normal category.
		Use the following steps: 1. Find total weight and moment index by using the loading graph (FAA Figure 34). The standard weight for gasoline is 6 lbs/U.S. gallons and for oil, 7.5 lbs U.S. gallon. Item Weight Moment/1,000 B.E.W. 1,350 lbs 51.5 lbs-in Pilot & Pax (a) 310 lbs 11.5 lbs-in Rear Pax (b) 96 lbs 7.0 lbs-in Fuel (38 x 6) (c) 228 lbs 11.0 lbs-in Oil 15 lbs -0.2 lbs-in Total 1,999 lbs 80.8 lbs-in 2. Plot the position of the point determined by 1,999 pounds and a moment of 80.8 lbs-in/1,000. The point is just inside the utility category envelope. Answer (A) is incorrect; this answer choice doesn’t have any significance. Answer (C) is incorrect because the oil moment needs to be subtracted.

46.		(Refer to Figure 22.) What is the magnetic heading for a flight from Priest River Airport (area 1) to Shoshone County Airport (area 3)? The wind is from 030° at 12 knots and the true airspeed is 95 knots.
A.		121°.
B.		143°.
C.		136°.
		Use the following steps: 1. Plot the course from Priest River to Shoshone County Airport. 2. Measure the true course angle at the approximate midpoint of the route (143°). 3. Find the true heading using a flight computer: Wind direction is 030° (given in question) Wind speed is 12 knots (given in question) True course is 143° (found in Step 2) True airspeed is 95 knots (given in question) Therefore, the true heading is 136°. 4. Calculate the magnetic heading by subtracting the easterly variation (15°E, as shown on the dashed isogonic line) from the true heading (136°). MH = TH ± VAR MH = 136° – 15°E MH = 121°

47.		(Refer to Figure 20, area 3.) Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Currituck County Airport.
A.		36°24’N – 76°01’W.
B.		36°48’N – 76°01’W.
C.		47°24’N – 75°58’W.
		Graticules on Sectional Aeronautical Charts are the lines dividing each 30 minutes of latitude and each 30 minutes of longitude. Each tick mark represents one minute of latitude or longitude. Latitude increases northward, west longitude increases going westward. The approximate latitude and longitude of Currituck County Airport is 36°24’N, 76°01’W.

48.		(Refer to Figure 68.) The line from point C to point A of the wind triangle represents
A.		wind direction and velocity.
B.		true course and groundspeed.
C.		true heading and groundspeed.
		The line from point C to A of the wind triangle represents the wind direction and speed (velocity). Answer (B) is incorrect because this is represented by the line from point C to B. Answer (C) is incorrect because these are the values found by using the wind triangle.

49.		(Refer to Figure 23, area 3.) What is the floor of the Savannah Class C airspace at the shelf area (outer circle)?
A.		1,300 feet AGL.
B.		1,300 feet MSL.
C.		1,700 feet MSL.
		Within the outer magenta circle of Savannah Class C airspace, there is a number 41 directly above the number 13. These depict the floor and ceiling of the Class C airspace; the floor being 1,300 feet MSL and the ceiling being 4,100 feet MSL.

50.		(Refer to Figure 22.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Sandpoint Airport (area 1) to St. Maries Airport (area 4). The wind is from 215° at 25 knots and the true airspeed is 125 knots.
A.		172°.
B.		349°.
C.		187°.
		Use the following steps: 1. Plot the course from Sandpoint Airport to St. Maries Airport. 2. Measure the true course angle at the approximate midpoint of the route (181°). 3. Find true heading, using a flight computer: Wind direction is 215° (given in question) Wind speed is 25 knots (given in question) True course is 181° (found in Step 2) True airspeed is 125 knots (given in question) Therefore, the true heading is 187°. 4. Calculate the magnetic heading by subtracting the easterly variation (15°) from the true heading (187°). MH = TH ± VAR MH = 187° – 15°E MH = 172°

51.		The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on
A.		the number of airports that lie within the Class D airspace.
B.		5 statute miles from the geographical center of the primary airport.
C.		the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established.
		The dimensions of Class D airspace are as needed for each individual circumstance. The airspace may include extensions necessary for IFR arrival and departure paths.

52.		(Refer to Figure 24, and Figure 28.) The VOR is tuned to Bonham VORTAC (area 3), and the aircraft is positioned over the town of Sulphur Springs (area 5). Which VOR indication is correct?
A.		1
B.		7
C.		8
		1. Locate and draw the magnetic course from Bonham VORTAC to Sulphur Springs (120?). 2. Notice that the OBS selections of all the dials in FAA Figure 28 are 030? or 210?, both of which are at 90? with respect to the 120? radial. Therefore, when over Sulphur Springs, the flag should indicate neither TO nor FROM and the course needle should have a full deflection either side. 3. Both dials 3 and 7 of FAA Figure 28 are at 90 degrees from the correct radial of 120 degrees. However, only dial 7 is a valid answer option.

53.		(Refer to Figure 28, illustration 7.) The VOR receiver has the indications shown. What is the aircraft’s position relative to the station?
A.		East.
B.		Southeast.
C.		West.
		Observe from illustration #7 of FAA Figure 28, that there is no TO/FROM indication and the CDI is deflected left with an OBS set on 030°. The aircraft is somewhere along the perpendicular line (120/300°). The CDI left means the 030° radial is to the left, or west, of the aircraft position. “Southeast” is the only answer choice placing the aircraft on the 120° radial, or southeast of the station.

54.		(Refer to Figure 24.) On what course should the VOR receiver (OBS) be set in order to navigate direct from Majors Airport (area 1) to Quitman VOR-DME (area 2)?
A.		101°.
B.		108°.
C.		281°.
		Use the following steps: 1. Plot the course direct from Majors Airport to Quitman VOR-DME. 2. Note the radial (magnetic course FROM) of Quitman VOR-DME on which the plotted course lies (281°). 3. Determine the course TO the VOR-DME by finding the reciprocal: TO = FROM + 180° TO = 281° + 180° TO = 461° – 360° = 101°

55.		(Refer to Figure 28, illustration 5.) The VOR receiver has the indications shown. What radial is the aircraft crossing?
A.		030°.
B.		210°.
C.		300°.
		The CDI is centered with the OBS set to 210° with a TO indication. Therefore, the aircraft is located on the 030° radial.

56.		(Refer to Figure 26, areas 4 and 2; and Figure 28.) The VOR is tuned to Jamestown VOR, and the aircraft is positioned over Cooperstown Airport. Which VOR indication is correct?
A.		2.
B.		5.
C.		8.
		1. Locate the Cooperstown Airport and the Jamestown VOR in FAA Figure 26. Draw the radial (magnetic course FROM) of the Jamestown VOR on which Cooperstown Airport lies (030). 2. When over cooperstown Airport on the 030 radial, the CDI have a 030 FROM indication or a 210 TO indication (the reciprocal). Dial 5 satisfies these conditions.

57.		What procedure is recommended when climbing or descending VFR on an airway?
A.		Execute gentle banks, left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace.
B.		Advise the nearest FSS of the altitude changes.
C.		Fly away from the centerline of the airway before changing altitude.
		During climbs and descents in flight conditions which permit visual detection of other traffic, pilots should execute gentle banks, left and right, at a frequency which permits continuous visual scanning of the airspace about them.

58.		When flying HAWK N666CB, the proper phraseology for initial contact with McAlester Flight Service is
A.		‘MC ALESTER RADIO, HAWK SIX SIX SIX CHARLIE BRAVO, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER.’
B.		‘MC ALESTER STATION, HAWK SIX SIX SIX CEE BEE, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER.’
C.		‘MC ALESTER FLIGHT SERVICE STATION, HAWK NOVEMBER SIX CHARLIE BRAVO, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER.’
		The term ‘initial radio contact,’ or ‘initial callup,’ means the first radio call you make to a given facility, or the first call to a different controller or Flight Service specialist within a facility. Use the following format: 1. Name of facility being called; 2. Your full aircraft identification as filed in the flight plan; 3. Type of message to follow or your request if it is short, and 4. The word ‘over,’ if required. Example: ‘New York Radio, Mooney Three One One Echo.’ When the aircraft manufacturer’s name or model is stated, the prefix ‘N’ is dropped. The first two characters of the call sign may be dropped only after ATC calls you by your last three letters/numbers.

59.		An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying north in a calm wind: ‘TRAFFIC 9 O’CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND…’ Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
A.		South.
B.		North.
C.		West.
		An aircraft flying north in calm wind would be heading 360°. When advised of traffic at the 9 o’clock position, the pilot should look 90° left of the nose, to the west.

60.		An alternating red and green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal to
A.		hold position.
B.		exercise extreme caution.
C.		not land; the airport is unsafe.
		An alternating red and green light signal means to exercise extreme caution. Answer (A) is incorrect because you can’t hold position in flight. Answer (C) is incorrect because this would be a flashing red signal.