FAA Test questions part 2

August 6, 2017

1.		What is the purpose of the rudder on an airplane?
A.		To control yaw.
B.		To control overbanking tendency.
C.		To control roll.
		The purpose of the rudder is to control yaw. Answer (B) is incorrect because the ailerons control overbanking. Answer (C) is incorrect because roll is controlled by the ailerons.

2.		When departing behind a heavy aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by maneuvering the aircraft
A.		below and downwind from the heavy aircraft.
B.		above and upwind from the heavy aircraft.
C.		below and upwind from the heavy aircraft.
		When departing behind a large aircraft, note the large aircraft’s rotation point, rotate prior to it, continue to climb above it, and request permission to deviate upwind of the large aircraft’s climb path until turning clear of the aircraft’s wake.

3.		When executing an emergency approach to land in a single-engine airplane, it is important to maintain a constant glide speed because variations in glide speed
A.		increase the chances of shock cooling the engine.
B.		assure the proper descent angle is maintained until entering the flare.
C.		nullify all attempts at accuracy in judgment of gliding distance and landing spot.
		A constant gliding speed should be maintained because variations of gliding speed nullify all attempts at accuracy in judgment of gliding distance and the landing spot.

4.		A precaution for the operation of an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller is to
A.		avoid high RPM settings with high manifold pressure.
B.		avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM.
C.		always use a rich mixture with high RPM settings.
		On aircraft equipped with a constant-speed propeller, the throttle controls the engine power output which is registered on the manifold pressure gauge. The propeller control changes the pitch angle of the propeller and governs the RPM which is indicated on the tachometer. On most airplanes, for any given RPM, there is a manifold pressure that should not be exceeded. If an excessive amount of manifold pressure is carried for a given RPM, the maximum allowable pressure within the engine cylinders could be exceeded, thus putting undue strain on them. Answer (A) is incorrect because high manifold pressure is allowable with high RPM settings, within specification limits. Answer (C) is incorrect because the mixture should be leaned for best performance.

5.		What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating during a climb?
A.		Reduce rate of climb and increase airspeed.
B.		Reduce climb speed and increase RPM.
C.		Increase climb speed and increase RPM.
		To avoid excessive cylinder head temperatures, a pilot can open the cowl flaps, increase airspeed, enrich the mixture, or reduce power. Any of these procedures will aid in reducing the engine temperature. Establishing a shallower climb (increasing airspeed) increases the airflow through the cooling system, reducing high engine temperatures. Answer (B) is incorrect because reducing airspeed hinders cooling, and increasing RPM will further increase engine temperature. Answer (C) is incorrect because increasing RPM will increase engine temperature.

6.		During the run-up at a high-elevation airport, a pilot notes a slight engine roughness that is not affected by the magneto check but grows worse during the carburetor heat check. Under these circumstances, what would be the most logical initial action?
A.		Check the results obtained with a leaner setting of the mixture.
B.		Taxi back to the flight line for a maintenance check.
C.		Reduce manifold pressure to control detonation.
		When carburetor heat is applied, the air/fuel mixture of an engine will be enriched because any given volume of hot air is less dense than cold air of the same volume. This condition would be aggravated at high altitude where, because of decreased air density, the mixture is already richer than at sea level. Answer (B) is incorrect because the pilot should taxi back only if positive results were not obtained by leaning the mixture. Answer (C) is incorrect because detonation would not occur if the mixture was too rich, and a rich fuel mixture was the condition described in the question.

7.		The pitot system provides impact pressure for which instrument?
A.		Altimeter.
B.		Vertical-speed indicator.
C.		Airspeed indicator.
		The pitot tube provides input for the airspeed indicator only. Answer (A) is incorrect because the altimeter and vertical speed indicator operate off the static system. Answer (B) is incorrect because the altimeter and vertical speed indicator operate off the static system.

8.		(Refer to Figure 3.) Altimeter 3 indicates
A.		9,500 feet.
B.		10,950 feet.
C.		15,940 feet.
		On altimeter #3 the 10,000-foot pointer is not quite to 10,000 feet. The 1,000-foot pointer is halfway between 9,000 and 10,000 feet, and the 100-foot pointer is on 500 feet.

9.		Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?
A.		At sea level, when the temperature is 0°F.
B.		When the altimeter has no installation error.
C.		At standard temperature.
		When conditions are standard, pressure altitude and density altitude are the same. Answer (A) is incorrect because standard temperature at sea level is 59°F. Answer (B) is incorrect because installation errors apply to airspeed indicators, not altimeters.

10.		What is the definition of a high-performance airplane?
A.		An airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower.
B.		An airplane with 180 horsepower, or retractable landing gear, flaps, and a fixed-pitch propeller.
C.		An airplane with a normal cruise speed in excess of 200 knots.
		A high-performance airplane is one with an engine of more than 200 horsepower.

11.		The pilot in command is required to hold a type rating in which aircraft?
A.		Aircraft operated under an authorization issued by the Administrator.
B.		Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds.
C.		Aircraft involved in ferry flights, training flights, or test flights.
		A type rating is required in order for a pilot to act as pilot-in-command of a large aircraft (except lighter-than-air) which is further defined as more than 12,500 pounds maximum certificated takeoff weight or a turbojet-powered aircraft. Answer (A) is incorrect because they don’t address the weight or type of propulsion. Answer (C) is incorrect because they don’t address the weight or type of propulsion.

12.		When must a current pilot certificate be in the pilot’s personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft?
A.		When acting as a crew chief during launch and recovery.
B.		Only when passengers are carried.
C.		Anytime when acting as pilot in command or as a required crewmember.
		No person may act as pilot-in-command (PIC), or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember, of a civil aircraft of United States registry unless he/she has in possession or readily accessible in the aircraft a current pilot certificate and a photo ID. Answer (A) is incorrect because a crew chief does not require a pilot certificate, and pilots must have certificates, regardless of whether carrying passengers or not. Answer (B) is incorrect because a crew chief does not require a pilot certificate, and pilots must have certificates, regardless of whether carrying passengers or not.

13.		Before passengers can be carried in an aircraft that has been altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics, it must be flight tested by an appropriately-rated pilot who holds at least a
A.		Commercial Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating.
B.		Private Pilot Certificate.
C.		Commercial Pilot Certificate and a mechanic’s certificate.
		No person may carry any person (other than crewmembers) in an aircraft that has been maintained, rebuilt, or altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics or substantially affected its operation in flight until an appropriately-rated pilot with at least a Private Pilot Certificate flies the aircraft, makes an operational check of the maintenance performed or alteration made, and logs the flight in the aircraft records.

14.		What ATC facility should the pilot contact to receive a special VFR departure clearance in Class D airspace?
A.		Automated Flight Service Station.
B.		Air Traffic Control Tower.
C.		Air Route Traffic Control Center.
		When a control tower is in operation, requests for special VFR clearances should be to the tower.

15.		With certain exceptions, when must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute?
A.		When a door is removed from the aircraft to facilitate parachute jumpers.
B.		When intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down 30° or more.
C.		When intentionally banking in excess of 30°.
		Unless each occupant of the aircraft is wearing an approved parachute, no pilot of a civil aircraft, carrying any person (other than a crewmember) may execute an intentional maneuver that exceeds 60° bank or 30° nose up or down, relative to the horizon.

16.		Which incident requires an immediate notification be made to the nearest NTSB field office?
A.		An overdue aircraft that is believed to be involved in an accident.
B.		An in-flight radio communications failure.
C.		An in-flight generator or alternator failure.
		When an aircraft is overdue and believed to have been involved in an accident, the NTSB must be notified immediately.

17.		Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?
A.		Glider.
B.		Airship.
C.		Aircraft refueling other aircraft.
		A glider has the right-of-way over an airship, airplane, or rotorcraft. Answer (B) is incorrect because a glider has the right-of-way over powered aircraft. Answer (C) is incorrect because an aircraft refueling other aircraft only has right-of-way over other engine-driven aircraft.

18.		Which VFR cruising altitude is acceptable for a flight on a Victor Airway with a magnetic course of 175°? The terrain is less than 1,000 feet.
A.		4,500 feet.
B.		5,000 feet.
C.		5,500 feet.
		When operating below 18,000 feet MSL in VFR cruising flight more than 3,000 feet above the surface and on a magnetic course of 0° through 179°, any odd thousand-foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet (i.e., 3,500, 5,500, etc.) is appropriate. On a course of 180° through 359°, even thousands plus 500 feet (4,500, 6,500, etc.) is appropriate.

19.		The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL is
A.		remain clear of clouds.
B.		500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally.
C.		500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally.
		An airway below 10,000 feet MSL is in either Class B, C, or D, or E airspace, and requires a cloud clearance of 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally.

20.		When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance, unless that pilot obtains an amended clearance. The one exception to this regulation is
A.		when the clearance states ‘at pilot’s discretion.’
B.		an emergency.
C.		if the clearance contains a restriction.
		Except in an emergency, no person may operate an aircraft contrary to an ATC clearance or instruction.

21.		(Refer to Figure 22, area 1.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate at night over Sandpoint Airport at less than 700 feet AGL are
A.		3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.
B.		3 miles and clear of clouds.
C.		1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.
		The Sandpoint Airport Class E airspace starts at 700 feet AGL. Below 700 feet AGL, the visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours is 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds. At night, the requirements are 3 SM, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal.

22.		Hazardous attitudes occur to every pilot to some degree at some time. What are some of these hazardous attitudes?
A.		Poor risk management and lack of stress management.
B.		Antiauthority, impulsivity, macho, resignation, and invulnerability.
C.		Poor situational awareness, snap judgments, and lack of a decision making process.
		ADM addresses the following five hazardous attitudes: Antiauthority (don’t tell me!), Impulsivity (do something quickly!), Invulnerability (it won’t happen to me!), Macho (I can do it!), Resignation (what’s the use?).

23.		(Refer to Figure 50.) The segmented circle indicates that a landing on Runway 26 will be with a
A.		right-quartering headwind.
B.		left-quartering headwind.
C.		right-quartering tailwind.
		The large end of the wind cone (wind sock) points into the wind. The wind cone in FAA Figure 50 indicates a wind from the northwest. When landing on RWY 26, this would be a right quartering headwind.

24.		(Refer to Figure 78, 79 and Legend 3.) Where in relation to the airfield is the airport beacon located for Sioux City (SUX) airport?
A.		West of runway 17-35.
B.		East of runway 17-35.
C.		Approach end of runway 31.
		Using Legend 3 you can determine that an airport beacon is depicted by a star feature. In both Figure 78 and on the airport diagram of Figure 79, locate the star feature on the east side of the airport or east of runway 17-35.

25.		In the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process, what is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude?
A.		Making a rational judgement.
B.		Recognizing hazardous thoughts.
C.		Recognizing the invulnerability of the situation.
		Hazardous attitudes which contribute to poor pilot judgment can be effectively counteracted by redirecting that hazardous attitude so that appropriate action can be taken. Recognition of hazardous thoughts is the first step in neutralizing them in the ADM process.

26.		(Refer to Figure 65.) Which airport marking is a runway safety area/obstacle free zone boundary?
A.		G.
B.		H.
C.		N.
		The runway boundary sign has a yellow background and a black inscription, with a graphic that depicts the pavement holding-position marking. This sign, which faces the runway and is visible to the pilot exiting the runway, is located adjacent to the holding-position marking on the pavement. The sign is intended to provide pilots with another visual cue they can use as a guide in deciding when they are “clear of the runway.” Answer (B) is incorrect because this is an ILS critical area boundary sign. Answer (C) is incorrect because this is a taxiway-ending marker.

27.		Who is responsible for determining whether a pilot is fit to fly for a particular flight, even though he or she holds a current medical certificate?
A.		The FAA.
B.		The medical examiner.
C.		The pilot.
		The pilot is responsible for determining whether he/she is fit to fly for a particular flight.

28.		A pilot can expect a wind-shear zone in a temperature inversion whenever the windspeed at 2,000 to 4,000 feet above the surface is at least
A.		10 knots.
B.		15 knots.
C.		25 knots.
		An increase in temperature with altitude is defined as a temperature inversion. A pilot can be relatively certain of a shear zone in the inversion if the pilot knows the wind at 2,000 to 4,000 feet is 25 knots or more.

29.		A nonfrontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms that often develop ahead of a cold front is known as a
A.		prefrontal system.
B.		squall line.
C.		dry line.
		A squall line is a nonfrontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms. The line may be too long to easily detour and too wide and severe to penetrate. It often contains severe steady-state thunderstorms and presents the single, most intense weather hazard to aircraft.

30.		Upon encountering severe turbulence, which flight condition should the pilot attempt to maintain?
A.		Constant altitude and airspeed.
B.		Constant angle of attack.
C.		Level flight attitude.
		The primary concern is to avoid undue stress on the airframe. This can best be done by attempting to maintain a constant attitude while keeping the airspeed below design maneuvering speed (V(A)). Answer (A) is incorrect because attempting to maintain a constant altitude or airspeed may result in overstressing the aircraft. Answer (B) is incorrect because a constant angle of attack would be impossible to maintain with the wind shear and shifts encountered in severe turbulence.

31.		In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest accumulation rate?
A.		Cumulus clouds with below freezing temperatures.
B.		Freezing drizzle.
C.		Freezing rain.
		A condition favorable for rapid accumulation of clear icing is freezing rain below a frontal surface. Answer (A) is incorrect because although cumulus clouds with below-freezing temperatures and freezing drizzle are conducive to structural icing, they will not have as high an accumulation rate as freezing rain. Answer (B) is incorrect because although cumulus clouds with below-freezing temperatures and freezing drizzle are conducive to structural icing, they will not have as high an accumulation rate as freezing rain.

32.		How does frost affect the lifting surfaces of an airplane on takeoff?
A.		Frost may prevent the airplane from becoming airborne at normal takeoff speed.
B.		Frost will change the camber of the wing, increasing lift during takeoff.
C.		Frost may cause the airplane to become airborne with a lower angle of attack at a lower indicated airspeed.
		The roughness of the surface of frost spoils the smooth flow of air, thus causing a slowing of the airflow. This slowing of the air causes early air flow separation over the affected airfoil, resulting in a loss of lift. Even a small amount of frost on airfoils may prevent an aircraft from becoming airborne at normal takeoff speed. Answer (B) is incorrect because frost does not change the basic aerodynamic shape of the airfoil. Answer (C) is incorrect because frost may prevent the aircraft from becoming airborne at normal takeoff speed and will not lower the angle of attack.

33.		Where does wind shear occur?
A.		Only at higher altitudes.
B.		Only at lower altitudes.
C.		At all altitudes, in all directions.
		Wind shear may be associated with either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.

34.		Which type weather briefing should a pilot request, when departing within the hour, if no preliminary weather information has been received?
A.		Outlook briefing.
B.		Abbreviated briefing.
C.		Standard briefing.
		You should request a standard briefing any time you are planning a flight and you have not received a previous briefing.

35.		(Refer to Figure 15.) In the TAF from KOKC, the clear sky becomes
A.		overcast at 2,000 feet during the forecast period between 2200Z and 2400Z.
B.		overcast at 200 feet with a 40% probability of becoming overcast at 600 feet during the forecast period between 2200Z and 2400Z.
C.		overcast at 200 feet with the probability of becoming overcast at 400 feet during the forecast period between 2200Z and 2400Z.
		Between 2200Z and 2400Z (BECMG 0522/0524), the sky will be overcast at 2,000 feet (OVC020).

36.		(Refer to Figure 15.) In the TAF for KMEM, what does ‘SHRA’ stand for?
A.		Rain showers.
B.		A shift in wind direction is expected.
C.		A significant change in precipitation is possible.
		‘SH’ stands for showers, and ‘RA’ stands for rain. Answer (B) is incorrect because a permanent change in existing conditions during the valid period of the TAF is indicated by the change groups FMHH (FroM) and BECMG (BECoMinG) HHhh. Answer (C) is incorrect because a permanent change in existing conditions during the valid period of the TAF is indicated by the change groups FMHH (FroM) and BECMG (BECoMinG) HHhh.

37.		What should pilots state initially when telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information?
A.		The intended route of flight radio frequencies.
B.		The address of the pilot in command.
C.		The intended route of flight and destination.
		When requesting a briefing, pilots should identify themselves and provide as much information regarding the proposed flight as possible. Answer (A) is incorrect because the pilot only needs to identify the route of flight. Answer (B) is incorrect because the caller only needs to provide an aircraft number of pilot’s name.

38.		(Refer to Figure 15.) What is the forecast wind for KMEM from 1600Z until the end of the forecast?
A.		No significant wind.
B.		Variable in direction at 4 knots.
C.		Variable in direction at 6 knots.
		From 1600Z until the end of the forecast, wind will be variable in direction at 6 knots (VRB06KT).

39.		(Refer to Figure 17.) What wind is forecast for STL at 12,000 feet?
A.		230° true at 56 knots.
B.		230° magnetic at 56 knots.
C.		230° true at 39 knots.
		A six-digit group shows wind directions (in reference to true north) in the first two digits, wind speed (in knots) in the second two digits, and temperature (in Celsius) in the last two digits. In this case, 2339-04 means 230° at 39 knots, and the temperature is -4°C. ^

40.		(Refer to Figures 32 and 33.) Which action can adjust the airplane’s weight to maximum gross weight and the CG within limits for takeoff? Front seat occupants 425 lb Rear seat occupants 300 lb Fuel, main tanks 44 gal
A.		Drain 12 gallons of fuel.
B.		Drain 9 gallons of fuel.
C.		Transfer 12 gallons of fuel from the main tanks to the auxiliary tanks.
		Use the following steps: 1. Calculate the original weights and moment index using the information from the problem and FAA Figures 32 and 33, and the formula: Weight x Arm ÷ 100 = Moment/Index Item Weight Arm Moment/100 Empty weight 2,015 lbs 1,554.0 lbs-in Front seat 425 lbs 85 361.3 lbs-in Rear seat 300 lbs 121 363.0 lbs-in Fuel (44 x 6) 264 lbs 75 198.0 lbs-in Total 3,004 lbs 2,476.3 lbs-in 2. If the aircraft has a maximum allowable takeoff weight of 2,950 lbs, compute the weight to be removed to reach an acceptable takeoff weight. 3,004 – 2,950 = 54 pounds 3. Compute the amount of fuel (in gallons) that totals 54 lbs: 54 ÷ 6 = 9 gallons 4. Compute the revised weight and moment index: Item Weight Arm Moment/100 Original totals 3,004 lbs 2,476.3 lbs-in Fuel – 54 lbs 75 – 40.5 lbs-in New Total 2,950 lbs 2,435.8 lbs-in 5. Consult the Moment Limits vs. Weight Chart. At 2,950 lbs takeoff weight, 2435.8 is within the Moment Limits.

41.		What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level?
A.		15°C and 29.92″ Hg.
B.		59°C and 1013.2 millibars.
C.		59°F and 29.92 millibars.
		Standard sea level pressure is 29.92 inches of mercury. Standard sea level temperature is 15°C.

42.		(Refer to Figure 8.) Determine the pressure altitude at an airport that is 3,563 feet MSL with an altimeter setting of 29.96.
A.		3,527 feet MSL.
B.		3,556 feet MSL.
C.		3,639 feet MSL.
		Referencing FAA Figure 8, use the following steps: 1. Since the altimeter setting that is given is not shown in FAA Figure 8, interpolation is necessary. Locate the settings immediately above and below the given value of 29.96″ Hg: Altimeter Setting Conversion Factor 29.92 0 feet 30.00 -73 feet 2. Determine the difference between the two conversion factors: 0 – 73 = -73 feet The setting 29.96 is halfway between the two values, so: -73 ÷ 2 = -36.5 feet 3. Determine the amount of difference to be subtracted from the 30.00″ Hg conversion factor. 4. Subtract the correction factor from the airport elevation to find pressure altitude: 3,563.0 – 36.5 = 3,526.5 feet MSL (pressure altitude)

43.		(Refer to Figure 37.) Determine the total distance required to land. OAT 32°F Pressure altitude 8,000 ft Weight 2,600 lb Headwind component 20 kts Obstacle 50 ft
A.		850 feet.
B.		1,400 feet.
C.		1,750 feet.
		Use the following steps: 1. Enter FAA Figure 37 at the point where the vertical 32°F temperature line intersects the 8,000-foot pressure altitude line. 2. From there, proceed to the right to the first vertical reference line. 3. From that point, proceed down and to the right (remaining proportionally between the existing lines) to the vertical line representing 2,600 pounds. 4. Then, proceed to the right to the second vertical reference line. 5. Then, proceed down and to the right (remaining proportionally between the existing headwind lines) to the vertical line representing 20 knots. 6. From that point, proceed to the right to the third reference line. 7. Finally, proceed up and to the right (remaining proportionally between the existing lines) to the 50-foot obstacle line at the end of the graph and read the landing distance (approximately 1,400 feet). ^

44.		(Refer to Figure 34.) Determine the aircraft loaded moment and the aircraft category. WEIGHT (LB) MOM/1000 Empty weight 1,350 51.5 Pilot and front passenger 380 — Fuel, 48 gal 288 — Oil, 8 qt — —
A.		78.2, normal category.
B.		79.2, normal category.
C.		80.4, utility category.
		Use the following steps: 1. Find the total weight and moment index by using the loading graph from FAA Figure 34. Item Weight Moment/1,000 B.E.W. 1,350 lbs 51.5 lbs-in Pilot & Pax (a) 380 lbs 14.0 lbs-in Fuel (b) 288 lbs 13.8 lbs-in Oil (c) 15 lbs -0.2 lbs-in Total 2,033 lbs 79.1 lbs-in 2. Plot the position of the point determined by 2,033 lbs. and a moment of 79.1 lbs-in/1,000. The point is within the normal category envelope.

45.		(Refer to Figure 36.) With a reported wind of north at 20 knots, which runway (6, 29, or 32) is acceptable for use for an airplane with a 13-knot maximum crosswind component?
A.		Runway 6.
B.		Runway 29.
C.		Runway 32.
		Use the following steps: 1. Locate the 20-knot wind velocity arc on FAA Figure 36. 2. Draw a line upward from the 13-knot crosswind component (maximum crosswind). 3. Note that in this case, acceptable crosswind components will result anytime the relative wind angle is equal to or less than about 40° (the intersection of the 13-knot vertical line and the 20-knot wind arc). 4. Calculate the relative wind angle between the north wind (0°) and the runway headings: RWY Relative Angle Landing 6 60° Upwind 29 70° Upwind 32 40° Upwind Only runway 32 provides a crosswind component that would be in acceptable limits for the airplane specified.

46.		(Refer to Figure 25.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Fort Worth Meacham (area 4) to Denton Muni (area 1). The wind is from 330° at 25 knots, the true airspeed is 110 knots, and the magnetic variation is 7° east.
A.		004°.
B.		017°.
C.		023°.
		Use the following steps: 1. Plot a course from Meacham to Denton, and measure the course (021°). 2. Using the wind obtained, calculate a correction angle. This angle will be the difference between the course bearing and the heading required to maintain that course. Wind correction angle is 10° to the left. 3. Add course bearing and wind correction angle to obtain true heading. 021 + -010 = 011° (true heading) 4. Find the magnetic heading by adding the variation to the true heading. 011 + -7 = 004° (magnetic heading)

47.		What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within Class B airspace?
A.		Two-way radio communications equipment and a 4096-code transponder.
B.		Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.
C.		Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, an encoding altimeter, and a VOR or TACAN receiver.
		Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft within Class B airspace unless that aircraft is equipped with an operable two-way radio capable of communications with ATC, a transponder with applicable altitude reporting equipment, and an encoding altimeter.

48.		(Refer to Figure 20, area 2.) The elevation of the Chesapeake Regional Airport is
A.		19 feet.
B.		55 feet.
C.		230 feet.
		Reference FAA Legend 1. The airport elevation is noted in the airport information, beneath the airport symbol. The elevation of Chesapeake Regional Airport is 19 feet.

49.		Under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within Class C airspace?
A.		The pilot must file a flight plan prior to departure.
B.		The pilot must monitor ATC until clear of the Class C airspace.
C.		The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff.
		For aircraft departing a satellite airport, two-way radio communication must be established as soon as practicable and thereafter maintained with ATC while within the area. Answer (A) is incorrect because Class C airspace does not require flight plans, and a pilot must maintain contact with ATC in Class C airspace. Answer (B) is incorrect because Class C airspace does not require flight plans, and a pilot must maintain contact with ATC in Class C airspace.

50.		(Refer to Figure 25.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Dallas Executive (area 3) to Fort Worth Meacham (area 4). The wind is from 030° at 10 knots, the true airspeed is 135 knots, and the magnetic variation is 7° east.
A.		266°.
B.		286°.
C.		312°.
		Use the following steps: 1. Plot a course from Dallas Executive to Meacham, and measure the course (289°). 2. Using the wind obtained, calculate a correction angle. This angle will be the difference between the course bearing and the heading required to maintain that course. Wind correction angle is 4° to the right. 3. Add course bearing and wind correction angle to obtain true heading. 289° course bearing + 4° wind correction angle = 293° true heading 4. Find the magnetic heading by adding the variation to the true heading. 293° true heading – 007° variation (E) = 286° magnetic heading

51.		(Refer to Figure 20, area 1.) What minimum radio equipment is required to land and take off at Norfolk International?
A.		Mode C transponder and omnireceiver.
B.		Mode C transponder and two-way radio.
C.		Mode C transponder, omnireceiver, and DME.
		Norfolk International is in Class C airspace. To operate within Class C airspace, an aircraft must have (1) two-way communications capability and (2) a Mode C transponder.

52.		How many Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites are required to yield a three dimensional position (latitude, longitude, and altitude) and time solution?
A.		5
B.		6
C.		4
		The GPS receiver uses data from a minimum of four satellites to yield a three dimensional position (latitude, longitude, and altitude) and time solution.

53.		(Refer to Figure 24, and Figure 28.) The VOR is tuned to Bonham VORTAC (area 3), and the aircraft is positioned over the town of Sulphur Springs (area 5). Which VOR indication is correct?
A.		1
B.		7
C.		8
		1. Locate and draw the magnetic course from Bonham VORTAC to Sulphur Springs (120?). 2. Notice that the OBS selections of all the dials in FAA Figure 28 are 030? or 210?, both of which are at 90? with respect to the 120? radial. Therefore, when over Sulphur Springs, the flag should indicate neither TO nor FROM and the course needle should have a full deflection either side. 3. Both dials 3 and 7 of FAA Figure 28 are at 90 degrees from the correct radial of 120 degrees. However, only dial 7 is a valid answer option.

54.		(Refer to Figure 28, illustration 5.) The VOR receiver has the indications shown. What radial is the aircraft crossing?
A.		030°.
B.		210°.
C.		300°.
		The CDI is centered with the OBS set to 210° with a TO indication. Therefore, the aircraft is located on the 030° radial.

55.		(Refer to Figure 23.) On what course should the VOR receiver (OBS) be set to navigate direct from Hampton Varnville Airport (area 1) to Savannah VORTAC (area 3)?
A.		003°.
B.		195°.
C.		200°.
		Use the following steps: 1. Plot the course direct from Hampton Varnville Airport to the Savannah VORTAC. 2. Note the radial (magnetic course from Savannah) on which the plotted course lies (015°). 3. Determine the course TO the VORTAC by finding the reciprocal: TO = FROM + 180° TO = 015° + 180° TO = 195°

56.		If receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM) capability is lost in flight,
A.		the pilot may still rely on GPS derived altitude for vertical information.
B.		the pilot has no assurance of the accuracy of the GPS position.
C.		GPS position is reliable provided at least 3 GPS satellites are available.
		The GPS receiver verifies the integrity (usability) of the signals received from the GPS constellation through receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM) to determine if a satellite is providing corrupted information. At least one satellite, in addition to those required for navigation, must be in view for the receiver to perform the RAIM function; thus, RAIM needs a minimum of 5 satellites in view, or 4 satellites and a barometric altimeter (baro-aiding) to detect an integrity anomaly. For receivers capable of doing so, RAIM needs 6 satellites in view (or 5 satellites with baro-aiding) to isolate the corrupt satellite signal and remove it from the navigation solution. GPS derived altitude should not be relied upon to determine aircraft altitude since the vertical error can be quite large and no integrity is provided.

57.		(Refer to Figure 26, areas 4 and 2; and Figure 28.) The VOR is tuned to Jamestown VOR, and the aircraft is positioned over Cooperstown Airport. Which VOR indication is correct?
A.		2.
B.		5.
C.		8.
		1. Locate the Cooperstown Airport and the Jamestown VOR in FAA Figure 26. Draw the radial (magnetic course FROM) of the Jamestown VOR on which Cooperstown Airport lies (030). 2. When over cooperstown Airport on the 030 radial, the CDI have a 030 FROM indication or a 210 TO indication (the reciprocal). Dial 5 satisfies these conditions.

58.		(Refer to Figure 25, area 2.) The control tower frequency for Addison Airport is
A.		122.95 MHz.
B.		126.0 MHz.
C.		133.4 MHz.
		The correct answer is found in the explanatory box for Addison airport in area 2: 126.0 MHz.

59.		If instructed by ground control to taxi to Runway 9, the pilot may proceed
A.		via taxiways and across runways to, but not onto, Runway 9.
B.		to the next intersecting runway where further clearance is required.
C.		via taxiways and across runways to Runway 9, where an immediate takeoff may be made.
		When ATC clears an aircraft to ‘taxi to’ an assigned takeoff runway, the absence of holding instructions does not authorize the aircraft to ‘cross’ all runways which the taxi route intersects except the assigned takeoff runway. A clearance must be obtained prior to crossing any runway. It does not include authorization to ‘Taxi on to’ or ‘cross’ the assigned takeoff runway at any point.

60.		As standard operating practice, all inbound traffic to an airport without a control tower should continuously monitor the appropriate facility from a distance of
A.		25 miles.
B.		20 miles.
C.		10 miles.
		Pilots of inbound traffic should monitor and communicate as appropriate on the designated CTAF from 10 miles to landing. Pilots of departing aircraft should monitor/communicate on the appropriate frequency from start-up, during taxi, and until 10 miles from the airport unless the CFRs or local procedures require otherwise.